It seems that the endogenous CB1/CB2 ligands are all PUFA derivatives, tho I may be wrong. I understand that it is impossible to avoid PUFA, so there are three possibilites:
(1) There is no need for endogenous CB1/CB2 ligands
(2) Very small amounts of PUFA are sufficient and will be present in all diets, except the "impossible" PUFA-free diet
(3) There are undiscovered non-PUFA-derived ligands.
But would this not contradict Peat's view that these substances are toxic and unnecessary in any quantity? The requirement may be very low, but is there not some need to produce the endogenous cannbinoids? I can't find anything from Peat himself, but everything I have read indicates that all of the ligands derive from omega6 -> arachidonic acid. In fact, if (2) is correct, would it not make omega6 essential, if CB1/CB2 ligands are essential for health/wellness? If not, why is the CB1/CB2 receptor spread throughout the body? Is it a way of binding these toxic substances for some purpose, until they can be disposed of?
(1) There is no need for endogenous CB1/CB2 ligands
(2) Very small amounts of PUFA are sufficient and will be present in all diets, except the "impossible" PUFA-free diet
(3) There are undiscovered non-PUFA-derived ligands.
But would this not contradict Peat's view that these substances are toxic and unnecessary in any quantity? The requirement may be very low, but is there not some need to produce the endogenous cannbinoids? I can't find anything from Peat himself, but everything I have read indicates that all of the ligands derive from omega6 -> arachidonic acid. In fact, if (2) is correct, would it not make omega6 essential, if CB1/CB2 ligands are essential for health/wellness? If not, why is the CB1/CB2 receptor spread throughout the body? Is it a way of binding these toxic substances for some purpose, until they can be disposed of?